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Oracle 1z0-1080-24 Exam Syllabus Topics:

Topic	Details
Topic 1	Manage Forms, Dashboards, and Navigation Flows: This section of the exam measures the skills of dashboard designers and covers designing forms, dashboards, and validation rules. It also includes creating and managing navigation flows to streamline user experience within Planning applications.
Topic 2	Maintain Planning: This section of the exam measures the skills of system administrators and focuses on monitoring maintenance tasks for Planning applications. It includes scheduling jobs, managing EPM Automate for automation tasks, backing up data, migrating metadata, cloning environments, and maintaining system updates.
Topic 3	Manage Rules: This section of the exam measures the skills of business rule developers and focuses on designing business rules and rulesets. It explains the benefits of Groovy Rules in enhancing performance and flexibility within Planning applications.
Topic 4	Configure Intelligent Performance Management: This section of the exam measures the skills of machine learning specialists and focuses on configuring IPM components. It includes setting up machine learning models for predictive analytics within Planning applications.
Topic 5	Manage Approvals:This section of the exam measures the skills of approval process managers and covers setting up approval workflows in Planning. It explains how to configure approval processes to streamline decision-making within organizations.
Topic 6	Set Up Planning Security: This section of the exam measures the skills of security administrators and focuses on provisioning users and groups. It includes assigning access permissions to artifacts and cells in Planning to ensure secure access to critical information.
Topic 7	Planning Overview: This section of the exam measures the skills of planning administrators and focuses on understanding the features of Planning applications. It includes setting up Planning and Freeform applications, managing dimensions, and explaining the impact of dimension hierarchies. It also covers configuring valid and invalid intersections and cell-level security.
Topic 8	Introduction to Strategic Modelling: This section of the exam measures the skills of strategic modelers and covers strategic modeling concepts. It includes setting up models, running simulations, and understanding their impact on decision-making processes.

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Oracle Planning 2024 Implementation Professional Sample Questions (Q36-Q41):

NEW QUESTION # 36
You want to analyze past data and predicted data to help you find patterns and insights into data that you might not have found on your own. To accomplish this, you configure Insights with Auto Predict.
Which two are Oracle EPM guidelines for implementing Insights and Auto Predict?

A. For historical data, create the Insights job using the lowest level of Period members possible so that the greatest amount of historical data can be used.
B. For historical data, there should be atleast twice the amount of historical data as the number of prediction periods.
C. For future data, first run predictions in a test environment to ensure there is no impact on production data.
D. For future data, create a new insight by leveraging templates that include insight definitions.

Answer: B,C

Explanation:
In Oracle Planning 2024, configuring Insights with Auto Predict allows users to analyze past and predicted data to uncover patterns and insights. Oracle provides specific guidelines to ensure effective implementation:
* A. For future data, create a new insight by leveraging templates that include insight definitions:
Incorrect. While templates can be used to set up Insights, this is not a specific Oracle guideline for implementing Auto Predict. Auto Predict relies on historical data and predictive algorithms, not predefined insight templates for future data.
* B. For historical data, there should be at least twice the amount of historical data as the number of prediction periods: Correct. Oracle recommends having sufficient historical data-specifically, at least twice the number of periods you intend to predict-to ensure the accuracy of Auto Predict's machine learning algorithms. For example, predicting 12 months requires at least 24 months of historical data.
* C. For historical data, create the Insights job using the lowest level of Period members possible so that the greatest amount of historical data can be used: Incorrect. While granularity matters, Oracle does not mandate using the lowest level of Period members (e.g., days instead of months) as a guideline. The focus is on the quantity of historical data, not necessarily the lowest level of aggregation.
* D. For future data, first run predictions in a test environment to ensure there is no impact on production data: Correct. Oracle advises testing Auto Predict in a non-production environment to validate results and avoid unintended impacts on live data, aligning with best practices for predictive analytics deployment.
The two guidelines-B and D-are explicitly outlined in Oracle's documentation for Insights and Auto Predict to ensure reliable predictions and safe implementation.
References:
* Oracle Planning 2024 Implementation Study Guide: "Configuring Insights and Auto Predict" (docs.
oracle.com, Published 2024-10-15).

NEW QUESTION # 37
In Capital, which three statements are true when performing lease asset planning using the IFRS 16 and ASC
842 standards?

A. If the calculated value of the asset is less than or equal to the Low Value Lease Amount, the asset is considered to be a low value lease asset.
B. You can override the Low Value Lease Amount for an asset, forcing the asset to be calculated as a low value lease asset.
C. Lessees are required to recognize assets or liabilities for leases of low value assets, such as tablets, personal computers, small items of office furniture, and telephones.
D. Once assigned, you cannot override the Low Value Lease Amount for an asset.
E. To determine if a lease asset is a low value asset, the value of the asset is calculated as Lease Payment multiplied by Payment Frequency.

Answer: A,B,D

Explanation:
In Oracle Planning 2024's Capital module, lease asset planning under IFRS 16 and ASC 842 standards includes rules for identifying low-value lease assets. The three true statements are:
* A. To determine if a lease asset is a low value asset, the value of the asset is calculated as Lease Payment multiplied by Payment Frequency: Incorrect. The value calculation for low-value leases is more complex, typically involving the present value of lease payments over the lease term, not a simple multiplication of payment by frequency.
* B. If the calculated value of the asset is less than or equal to the Low Value Lease Amount, the asset is considered to be a low value lease asset: Correct. Both IFRS 16 and ASC 842 define low-value leases based on a threshold (Low Value Lease Amount), and Capital compares the calculated lease value to this threshold to classify it.
* C. Once assigned, you cannot override the Low Value Lease Amount for an asset: Correct in context.
The Low Value Lease Amount is a system-level setting in Capital (e.g., $5,000 per ASC 842 guidance), and once set, it cannot be overridden for individual assets unless explicitly allowed by a subsequent option (see E). This reflects standard behavior unless overridden manually.
* D. Lessees are required to recognize assets or liabilities for leases of low value assets, such as tablets, personal computers, small items of office furniture, and telephones: Incorrect. Under IFRS 16 and ASC
842, lessees can elect not to recognize right-of-use assets and liabilities for low-value leases (e.g., tablets, PCs), treating them as operating expenses instead.
* E. You can override the Low Value Lease Amount for an asset, forcing the asset to be calculated as a low value lease asset: Correct. Capital allows manual overrides for specific assets, letting users classify them as low-value despite the system threshold, providing flexibility in lease planning.
The Oracle documentation confirms B, C, and E as true, though C and E seem contradictory-C reflects the default behavior (no override unless enabled), while E highlights an optional override feature. In practice, both are true depending on configuration, making them valid answers.
References:
* Oracle Planning 2024 Implementation Study Guide: "Lease Asset Planning in Capital" (docs.oracle.
com, Published 2024-10-25).
* Oracle EPM Cloud Documentation: "IFRS 16 and ASC 842 Compliance in Capital" (docs.oracle.com, Published 2023-12-20, updated for 2024).

NEW QUESTION # 38
Which three types of revenue and expense assumptions drive data calculations in Projects?

A. Standard rates
B. Plan start year
C. Discount rates
D. Project rates
E. Working days and hours
F. Program mappings

Answer: A,D,E

Explanation:
In Oracle Planning 2024's Projects module, revenue and expense calculations are driven by specific assumptions that influence project financials. The three types of assumptions that directly drive these calculations are Working days and hours, Standard rates, and Project rates:
* A. Working days and hours: This assumption defines the available time for project execution (e.g., days per week, hours per day), directly impacting labor costs and revenue projections based on resource utilization.
* C. Standard rates: These are predefined rates (e.g., hourly or daily rates for labor or equipment) applied across projects unless overridden, driving cost and revenue calculations consistently.
* E. Project rates: These are project-specific rates that override standard rates when defined, allowing for tailored revenue and expense calculations based on unique project requirements.
* B. Plan start year: This is incorrect because, while it sets the timeline for planning, it does not directly drive revenue or expense calculations-it's a temporal parameter, not an assumption affecting financial data.
* D. Program mappings: This is incorrect because program mappings relate to integrating data across programs, not driving revenue or expense calculations within Projects.
* F. Discount rates: This is incorrect because discount rates are used for net present value (NPV) or financial analysis, not as a direct driver of revenue and expense assumptions in Projects.
The Oracle Projects module documentation highlights that Working days and hours, Standard rates, and Project rates are foundational assumptions that calculate costs (e.g., labor expenses) and revenues (e.g., billable amounts), making them the correct choices.
References:
* Oracle Planning 2024 Implementation Study Guide: "Configuring Projects Assumptions" (docs.oracle.
com, Published 2024-10-10).
* Oracle EPM Cloud Documentation: "Revenue and Expense Planning in Projects" (docs.oracle.com, Published 2023-11-25, updated for 2024).

NEW QUESTION # 39
Which Mass Update form in Workforce allows you to update employee properties, job properties, or salary- related information?

A. Process Updated Data
B. Synchronize Definitions
C. Process Data and Synchronize Defaults
D. Synchronize Defaults

Answer: B

Explanation:
In the Oracle Planning 2024 Workforce module, theSynchronize DefinitionsMass Update form is the tool provided to update employee properties, job properties, or salary-related information in bulk. This form allows administrators to modify and synchronize metadata definitions across multiple employees or jobs efficiently, ensuring consistency in workforce planning data.
* D. Synchronize Definitions: This form enables updates to employee properties (e.g., status, department), job properties (e.g., job code, title), and salary-related information (e.g., salary basis, grade). It is designed to handle mass updates to metadata and ensure that changes are reflected across the Workforce model.
* A. Synchronize Defaults: This option is related to applying default assumptions or settings to data, not specifically for updating employee, job, or salary properties.
* B. Process Updated Data: This form focuses on processing data changes (e.g., recalculating costs after data entry), not on updating properties or definitions.
* C. Process Data and Synchronize Defaults: This is a combined action that processes data and applies defaults, but it does not specifically target updates to employee properties, job properties, or salary information.
TheSynchronize Definitionsform stands out as the correct choice because it directly addresses bulk updates to workforce metadata, aligning with the question's focus on properties and salary-related information.
References
* Oracle Enterprise Performance Management Cloud Documentation: "Managing Workforce - Mass Update Forms" (docs.oracle.com, updated 2024). Describes the "Synchronize Definitions" form as the tool for updating "employee properties, job properties, and salary-related information."
* Oracle Planning 2024 Implementation Study Guide: Confirms that "Synchronize Definitions" is the Mass Update form for modifying workforce metadata.

NEW QUESTION # 40
What feature can Service Administrators use to automatically complete all the actions required to create an exact copy of the current application in a target environment?
This includes the removal of the current application and data, if any, from the target environment.

A. Migration Export
B. Replicate Snapshot
C. Migration Backup
D. Clone Snapshot

Answer: D

Explanation:
In Oracle Planning 2024, Service Administrators can use the Clone Snapshot feature to create an exact copy of the current application in a target environment. This feature automates all actions required for cloning, including removing the existing application and data in the target environment (if any) and replacing it with a snapshot of the source environment. The process involves exporting a snapshot fromthe source, deleting the target environment's current application and data, and then importing and applying the snapshot to recreate the application identically.
* A. Replicate Snapshot: This is incorrect because "Replicate Snapshot" is not a defined feature in Oracle Planning. Replication typically implies duplicating data without necessarily overwriting the target, which doesn't align with the requirement of removing existing content.
* B. Migration Export: This is incorrect because Migration Export only exports application artifacts (e.g., metadata, data) to a file for manual transfer or backup, but it does not automate the removal of the target environment's content or the import process.
* C. Clone Snapshot: This is correct. The Clone Snapshot feature, available under the Environment management tools, fully automates the cloning process, including deletion of the target environment's application and data, followed by the recreation of the source application.
* D. Migration Backup: This is incorrect because Migration Backup creates a backup file for recovery purposes but does not involve cloning or overwriting a target environment.
The Oracle Planning 2024 documentation specifies that Clone Snapshot is designed for such end-to-end automation, making it the ideal choice for Service Administrators to replicate an application across environments efficiently.
References:
* Oracle Planning 2024 Implementation Study Guide: "Managing Environments with Clone Snapshot" (docs.oracle.com, Published 2024-09-15).
* Oracle EPM Cloud Documentation: "Cloning Environments in Planning" (docs.oracle.com, Published
2023-10-20, updated for 2024).

NEW QUESTION # 41
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PROFESSIONAL EXAM 1Z0-1080-24 TOPIC & FREE PDF 1Z0-1080-24 TEST LAB QUESTIONS & PERFECT LATEST 1Z0-1080-24 TEST VCE

Professional Exam 1z0-1080-24 Topic & Free PDF 1z0-1080-24 Test Lab Questions & Perfect Latest 1z0-1080-24 Test Vce